I've not taken the time to read all the posts to this, but I did want to interject something I've always believed in: You never know a man's best price until YOU make an offer that has been accepted". If the question here is does a person that has a so-called Population 1 and 0 coin know what it is worth because of what they are asking....I'd say no. Are they entitled to ask whatever they want....heck yeah. Do you know what their best price really is....only if YOU make an offer and it is accepted.
My two cents and not sure if this answers whatever you were asking JC?
Value and price are not the same thing. Price is determined by two people, the high bidder and the underbidder. Value can be anything. If I get a coin into a PCGS PF 70 DCAM holder the price and value may have nothing to do with each other. Don't believe then I refer you back to the 1964 cent that sold for thirtysomething thousand. Is that its value, no because it isn't a 70, was that its price yes. Had it not been for the underbidder the price might have been considerably less.
I have a few pop 1/0 - in fact 0/1/0 coins - i.e. only one - none higher OR lower. I try to use some type of proxy system to determine a fair price to buy or sell at based on what other coins sell at. e.g. if I have the only Cameo or DCAM of a Lincoln and a similar grade has sold for x in RD, as a ballpark I figure 2x for Cameo & 3x for the DCAM (conservatively?). OBVIOUSLY not scientific or perfect but what's better if no auction records AT ALL? Another example would be to try to use an auction record of a similar pop & mintage coin but of another date in the same series. I'm WIDE open to suggestions as to how to improve.
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My two cents and not sure if this answers whatever you were asking JC?
Mike Printz
Larry Whitlow, Ltd.
Web Site
Harlan J. Berk, Ltd.
https://hjbltd.com/#!/department/us-coins